@Jaytow: I really am trying to understand your argument but it isn't making sense to me.
Common sense would dictate that around the revolutionary war the american and british accent was about the same.
After that point, there are a number of circumstances that could change an accent. I'm sure neither of the current accents are all that similar to a 1776 british accent.
The biggest thing we know about 1776 british accents is that it was rhotic. (Correct me if i'm wrong and we know something bigger then that, I am by no means a linguist.)
Current (stereotypical) american accents are rhotic. Current (stereotypical) british accents are non-rhotic.
With that in mind, by common sense, we can assume that the current (stereotypical) american accent is closer to a 1776 british accent.
(Again, this doesn't mean by any means at all that either accent is that close to a 1776 british accent.)
So, in my mind, common sense seems to suggest the opposite of what you say it suggests.
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